Okay, here's an article about a recent survey asking Americans about their condom-using habits. It contains the two following, seemingly-contradictory, sections:

The majority -- 84 percent -- of the survey respondents said they take necessary steps to prevent catching an STD, but 82 percent of the sexually active participants said they never use barrier protection when having oral sex. Almost half said they go without condoms when having vaginal sex.

and...

Among single, sexually active participants, almost three-quarters (71 percent) said they never use barriers when having oral sex, and 23 percent, nearly a fourth, never use condoms for vaginal sex, the survey found.

The only qualifier in the second section is the word "single". But the article never points out that in the first section it's talking about married and single respondents, but that's pretty much the only way to make sense of the difference, right?

So if this is right, then married people use protection less often than single people. But when? When they're having sex with their spouse, or when they're having an affair? This is an important distinction, isn't it?

Somebody help me out here...